So it appears my office is saying "We'll be closed from December 23rd to January 2nd, but there's only 4 paid days, the rest is taken from accumulated
Posted by
Guigue (aka Guigue)
Nov 16 '11, 12:54
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overtime"
How can that be legal? and what happens if I don't have overtime (which I plan on using by that time)
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Responses:
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how would it not be legal? you're not working, why should they pay you? -- nm
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znufrii
Nov 16, 13:01
7
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what does this look like, Greece? -- nm
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stuffed pixie
Nov 16, 13:00
1
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IDK all i know is that you're not here
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Danedukenuuk
Nov 16, 12:57
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Ah, with stats, you don't need any OT during that stretch. 23rd, 28th, 29th and 30th are the only business days there. -- nm
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Name Withheld By Request
Nov 16, 12:56
7
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that seems correct unless you don't observe xmas day holiday on the Monday because it fell on the weekend -- nm
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Karl_S
Nov 16, 12:56
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