So if a law is passed, but no one is informed of it, can people be charged with violating it?
Posted by
ty97
Nov 30 '11, 13:32
|
That's a extreme generalization on purpose. I'm sure this ordinance was not passed in a vacuum and it was not hidden from people. But what if it was? Can you pass a law that says "Don't do X" and as long as the law doesn't also say "Inform people not to do X" you can charge them for doing X without at least a minimal attempt to inform the citizenry of said ordinance?
|
Responses:
|