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Baseball rules question

Posted by Guigue (aka Guigue) May 11 '12, 09:25

Runner on first base, batter hits a ground toward 1st base. Infielder at first catches the ball, touches 1st base

- It's now not a forced play at second right? That means the infielder at second now has to touch the runner?
- Does that also mean that the runner that was on 1st base could come back to first base?

Thanks!

Responses:

correct on both. -- nm - znufrii May 11, 09:29 1
- rule 7.08(e), if you're interested -- nm - znufrii May 11, 09:31
yes, ? -- nm - tRuMaN (insane, possibly) May 11, 09:25
yes and yes -- nm - Beaker May 11, 09:25 3
- This. -- nm - Krusty May 11, 09:26 2
  - Cool, thanks - Guigue May 11, 09:28 1
    - It happens rather often. Depending on where the 1st baseman fields the ball it'll decide which base he goes to first. - Krusty May 11, 09:41

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Baseball rules question

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