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ok, ST,, maybe i'm just a little OCD, but here's a mathmatical WTF moment ...

Posted by i'm not dead yet ! (aka pacrat) Jun 9 '12, 20:47

this could be embarassing if it's a simple answer that i'm overlooking, but I'm doing some online spanish homework ... first 3 mini asignments done ....

i got :

12 out of 12 correct
14 out of 16 correct, and
32 out of 40 correct

for 100%, 87.5%, and 80% scores on the individual assignments ...

so here's the WTF / what am I missing here moment :

100% + 87.5% + 80% = 89.167% average ...

but 58 out of 68 (58 divided by 68) = 85.29% average ...

I'm no math genius, so what am I missing here? they should be the same, shouldn't they?

Responses:

nope. an exagerated example to show you why... - dogbert Jun 9, 21:25
no -- nm - Spawn Jun 9, 21:12
The short answer is no. The long answer is each question becomes less valuable for each test. The first one a question was worth 1/12, the second - GregW Jun 9, 21:05
11% of 12...87.5% of 16...80% of 40..you did not adjust -- nm - peglegpete Jun 9, 20:56
averaging the percentages only work if they're each the percentage of the same number -- nm - prayformojo Jun 9, 20:56 1
- and if he put our 2 answers together...:)) -- nm - peglegpete Jun 9, 20:57

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ok, ST,, maybe i'm just a little OCD, but here's a mathmatical WTF moment ...

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