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In response to "here's one analysis I found -- (link)" by znufrii

from what I can tell, it combines a flat tax on business cash flow (minus investment expenditures) with a progressive tax on wage incomes

while exempting personal savings and investment income entirely.

I just can't see how to reach the conclusion that in effect it is the same thing as a consumption tax, which is the argument David Brooks is posing in his NYTimes column today.


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