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In response to "B2: My issue with "gerrymandering"" by Strongbad

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Posted by Max Jan 23 '13, 11:51

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http://www.hsxtt.com/index.php?post_id=2526462&board_id=16126&username=Max (www.hsxtt.com)

If you do that, and a state's population has 40% minority, and the boundaries make every district 40% minority, is that better than mapping so that

Max Jan 17 '13, 12:02

60% of districts have a majority majority and 40% of districts have a minority majority? I would think that mapping every district with a 60/40 split would mean minorities never get elected. Would that be considered good because it's representative of the state, or bad because it excludes minorities?

In response to tenreiro: "It's hard to come up with the right formula because you may end up with underrepresentation of groups"

Responses:

[deleted] 5
- I'm surprised you'd stop at just race. -- nm - Strongbad Jan 23, 12:12 3
  - [deleted] 2
    - Yes, with 1% of 24 or 15% of 3, it won't matter. -- nm - Strongbad Jan 23, 12:23 1
      - [deleted]
- Tangent to your point: RP: The religious affiliation of Congress versus the American people -- (link) - znufrii Jan 23, 12:08
Exactly. -- nm - Strongbad Jan 23, 11:53

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