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I read it pretty clearly as C, and I would rule that a signature equals an oath *if*, but...

How did he get the school to sign? Is this a conspiracy or did he lie to them too? In this particular case I wouldn't count "intend" to go to X school as something that you could prove or lie about. He could have changed his mind after signing the application. I'd rule for the Defendant for that reason unless there was contradictory evidence, ie. he signed the application after signing a letter to the school stating that he would not attend.

I don't understand the B option. If there's no need for an oath to obtain a conviction, why are they ruling for the defendant?


I'm guessing they would rule for the Defendant in this case.


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