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I'm missing information then because I thought it said she had to check a box to waive the robocall exclusion rights, not just give her phone number.

But even so, if the initial waiver was deemed sufficient to grant the waiver by giving the number then it undercuts your argument that there was no explicit waiver. I don't think you can have it both ways. The better argument would be that no waiver was given in the first place (and I'd buy that argument unless the statute explicitly says giving your number constitutes a waiver). But I'm more sympathetic in a consumer context if the waiver was not explained (via a check the box) on the contract.

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