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Posts: 173
In response to
"
That's different, becuase we'd be signing into a contract with those values.
"
by
JaxSean
it's not really different at all. The underlying asset is the same.
Posted by
znufrii, unpatriotic (aka znufrii)
Feb 20 '09, 14:01
As a matter of fact it would probably be a violation of Fed regulations to have that heavily leveraged of a loan regardless of the original value of the house when the loan was taken out.
Responses:
You are massively confusing making a loan in the first place and what happens after a loan has been made.
-
Ender
Feb 20, 14:06
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