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quick legal-ish mumbojumbo question

Posted by znufrii May 16 '14, 09:20

does referring to a party within a written agreement as "Mr. So-and-so" need to be established as a defined term when their full name is first included, or is it just assumed to be obvious who it is referring to?

Responses:

Unless you're using the full name throughout, it is preferrable to define it. -- nm - pmb May 16, 09:33 2
- Plus then you only have to change the name once to reuse the doucment. -- nm - spamlet May 16, 09:45
- thx. -- nm - znufrii May 16, 09:37
introduce him in the first line as Mr. So-and-So (aka The Dude) - decline May 16, 09:29 1
- No. -- nm - znufrii May 16, 09:38
In my experience, it's more usual to refer to the party by name in the defined terms, and then use the defined term throughout the agreement. - Roger More May 16, 09:27 2
- thx. -- nm - znufrii May 16, 09:38
- This is mine as well. -- nm - spamlet May 16, 09:28

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quick legal-ish mumbojumbo question

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