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So, saying it another way

Posted by Strongbad (aka Rambler14) Aug 14 '17, 06:41

If 1 private organization is assembling in a peaceful manner

And another private organization uses legal means to attempt to disrupt this assembly

there should be no recourse by the government?

And if the 2nd org uses unlawful means to attempt to disrupt,

there should be recourse against them by the government?

Responses:

[deleted] 4
- I'm not suggesting any. I'm just making sure I understand your POV. -- nm - Strongbad Aug 14, 06:45 3
  - [deleted] 2
    - All I was doing is clarifying one of your earlier statements. - Strongbad Aug 14, 06:51 1
      - [deleted]

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So, saying it another way

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