Not that I think anything would change, but how do they call KY with 18% reporting?
Posted by
musubi voted (aka musubi)
Nov 4 '08, 16:58
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I mean, the differential in the votes is roughly 50k votes, over 340k total. Assuming the last 82% of KY accounts for around a 1.2M more votes, is it really that statistically unlikely for 50k to be made up?
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Responses:
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Thanks for the answers, it just seems that with record voter turnout, it seems that maybe historical trends might not be as safe an indicator as usual
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musubi voted
Nov 4, 17:01
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exit polls and history.. based on counties and whatnot...
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Gwaahjo
Nov 4, 16:59
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They have algorithms that show expectations with exit polls and past historical results. -- nm
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Will Hunting
Nov 4, 16:59
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It's a combination of prior polling, exit polling and actual voting results. -- nm
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David
Nov 4, 16:58
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I guess it depends on what county reported so far -- nm
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Guigue
Nov 4, 16:58
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exit polls, mostly. -- nm
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Reagen
Nov 4, 16:58
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