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In response to "Just because that's the case in Canada does not mean that's the same in Scotland." by the liioulu with bee book

I can tell you that the UK parliament manifestly did not grant home rule to Scotland for the purposes of giving it training wheels to independence.

Could that happen? Sure. But it could happen in *any* country given the right circumstances. However, as usual you are confusing the issue of debate, which was about what the state of things *is*, not what they might be at some point in the future. Calling the UK out of date ignores those hundreds of years of history you're pointing to.

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