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In response to "no, because that would be clearly prohibited under the Supreme Court case of Loving v. Virginia" by pigby

To clarify, a state could amend their Constitution in this way, and then SCOTUS (or a lower court) would overturn it, right?

I mean, there's no way to stop the people from voting for an state constitutional amendment that is known to violate a SCOTUS ruling on the US Constitution, is that correct?

(the odds of anything like this seem scant anyway, but it's fun theoretical exercise)


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