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In response to "I don't see how that's relevant. -- nm" by Reagen

Because of the legal ramifications of "enemy combatants", no?

I mean, this is a symptom of the larger ramifications of 21st warfare, but isn't that why it's somewhat important that it is quickly determined if its proper to classify it as "crime" vs. "attack"?

I'm not saying I'm convinced of this argument, but I'm really not sure I can dismiss it either.


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