In response to
"I don't think the rule has to do with the ball being in the stands, it has to do with the OFer going into the stands to make the play."
by
TFox
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i am divinding that play into its distinct parts.
Posted by
tRuMaN (aka Truman)
Oct 19 '10, 18:39
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the call on the field was that the ball was in the "stands" therefore there is no fan interference, and therefore it is no reviewable. ok, i get that.
and i get that a fly ball hitting the top of the wall is considered a home run.
but there is a gap, from at least what the tv people said, between the first row of outfield seats and the wall, to keep interference down.
so if the ball is in the gap, is that the stands? the call on the field will not change, i get that, i just want to understand how that call was made, because it just seemed strange to me.
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